Terminal Value Calculation - Perpetuity Growth Method

This question likely has a very simple answer but I have seen conflicting answers on the internet.

In a 5-year DCF to calculate terminal value, do I use the Year 5 cash flow * (1+ g) / (WACC - g) or do I need to project another "Terminal year" cash flow to which I then apply the perpetuity growth formula that is Terminal year cash flow * (1+g) / (WACC - g) ?

On the Multiple Expansion website, the latter method is used hence the source of my confusion.